I have a gas fired boiler that feeds an indirect water heater that supplies hot water to the faucets and baseboard. The existing unit (Amtrol 41 Gal. 100,000 BTU Bottom Connection 6 Year Warranty Indirect Fired Water Heater) has rusted out (it’s 30 years old!) so I have an Lochnivar sitting next to it and am in the process of getting quotes from plumbers to switch out the leaking unit.
The last plumber who came around mentioned that I’d need some type of “mixing valve” $172 he said, and from what I understand it would supple hotter temperature water to the baseboard that what it supplied to the faucets. He said that this unit is now built into the Amtrol and we’d need to buy a new one as the tank I selected doesn’t have this built in. Ok so I’m an amateur plumber but not a total tool, the Amatrol units doesn’t have any type of mixing thingy inside of it, it’s just a tank with a coil in the middle so I think he’s mistaken ???
So my question is what is he taking about and from the limited research I’ve done it look like my system was designed to have the same temperature water going through the baseboard and coming out of the taps. Is this a correct assumption
( can someone also tell me why each plumber tells me a different story each time they give me a quote! Eg one guy said we’d need to bleed the system ofterwared and onother one said perhaps we’d need to bleed the system!)